Get all the Information About ACAMS CAMS7 Exam 2026 Practice Test Questions [Q28-Q45]

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Get all the Information About ACAMS CAMS7 Exam 2026 Practice Test Questions

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NEW QUESTION # 28
A bank is using a network analysis tool to identify links between its customers and criminal entities.
The system identifies potential indirect relationships but is unable to prioritize them. What should the compliance officer do to enhance the tool's effectiveness?

  • A. Integrate external databases and social media profiles to cross-check flagged entities
  • B. Implement risk-scoring algorithms for indirect connections
  • C. Focus on direct connections between customers and criminal entities
  • D. Manually review all flagged relationships for accuracy

Answer: B

Explanation:
Anti-Money Laundering (AML) regulations and guidance from bodies such as the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) emphasize the importance of a risk-based approach when identifying and managing money laundering and terrorist financing risks. Network analysis tools are commonly used by financial institutions to detect direct and indirect relationships between customers and known criminal entities. However, without prioritization, these tools may generate large volumes of alerts that reduce operational effectiveness.
Implementing risk-scoring algorithms for indirect connections allows the institution to rank identified relationships based on factors such as proximity to criminal entities, transaction volume, frequency, customer risk rating, and typology relevance. This enhances the tool's effectiveness by enabling compliance teams to focus on the highest-risk relationships first, in line with regulatory expectations for efficient and proportionate controls.
Manually reviewing all flagged relationships is impractical and inconsistent with scalable AML programs.
Integrating external databases or social media profiles may raise data quality, privacy, and governance concerns and is not a primary solution for prioritization. Focusing only on direct connections would weaken the AML framework, as criminals frequently use layered and indirect relationships to conceal illicit activity.
Therefore, applying risk-based scoring methodologies is the most effective and regulator-aligned way to enhance network analysis tools.


NEW QUESTION # 29
When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

  • A. Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding
  • B. Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics
  • C. Different applications to connect and communicate
  • D. Digital identification on mobile devices

Answer: C

Explanation:
Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)are tools that enableinterconnectivity and data exchangebetween different software applications. In AML contexts, APIs are commonly used tointegrate third-party systems, such as screening tools, customer databases, and transaction monitoring platforms, ensuring real-time and accurate flow of information.
This technological capability supports enhancedautomation, agility, and efficiencyin AML processes.
Reference: ACAMS CAMS Study Guide - 6th Edition, Chapter:Technology and AML- Section:Emerging Technologies and APIs in Compliance


NEW QUESTION # 30
Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

  • A. inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.
  • B. increased reputation risk.
  • C. civil and criminal penalties
  • D. delisting of public filing status.

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 31
Tax evasion is:

  • A. The practice of minimizing tax liability by exploiting loopholes or unintended interpretations of tax law
  • B. The non-payment or under-payment of taxes, usually by deliberately making a false declaration or no declaration to tax authorities
  • C. A provision that reduces taxable income as an itemized or standard deduction
  • D. A specialized accounting discipline focused on lawful tax planning

Answer: B

Explanation:
Tax evasion is a criminal offense and is widely recognized as a predicate offense to money laundering under FATF standards and national AML laws.
It involves the deliberate non-payment or under-reporting of taxes, often through false declarations, concealment of income, or failure to file required tax returns. The key distinction is intentional deception of tax authorities.
In contrast, tax avoidance refers to lawful strategies used to minimize tax liability within the boundaries of the law. Deductions and tax planning activities are legal and do not constitute tax evasion.
Because tax evasion generates illicit proceeds, it is directly relevant to AML/CFT frameworks, and financial institutions must be alert to indicators of tax-related financial crime.


NEW QUESTION # 32
An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.
Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?

  • A. Independent testing
  • B. Consistency of approach
  • C. Qualification of the team
  • D. Periodic training of the function

Answer: A

Explanation:
Independent testing is critical for the third line of defense to provide unbiased and effective oversight, ensuring that reviews and audits are objective and free from influence by the first or second lines of defense.


NEW QUESTION # 33
A financial institution is designing an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA).
According to the guidance issued by the Wolfsberg Group regarding a risk-based approach to identifying and managing money laundering risks, an effective approach should:

  • A. Use a framework provided by a third-party vendor and used by other FIs in the jurisdiction.
  • B. Focus on understanding the risks presented by new clients within the assessment period, and the controls to mitigate associated money laundering risks.
  • C. Focus on the inherent risk in the FI's product and service offerings and the controls to mitigate potential money laundering risks.
  • D. Include appropriate measures and controls to mitigate money laundering risks stemming from higher- risk customers, products, and geographies.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 34
A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance.
The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.
Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

  • A. The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.
  • B. The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.
  • C. The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.
  • D. The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.
  • E. The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
* B: If a bank fails to demonstrate sustained improvement or cannot resolve identified deficiencies, it can face civil or even criminal penalties from regulators. Regulators expect not just policy changes, but proof of effectiveness and ongoing compliance improvements.
* C: Even after addressing many concerns, if all issues are not resolved-such as outstanding transaction monitoring backlogs-regulators may issue orders to further remediate the AML program until full compliance is achieved.
* CAMS 6th Edition and regulatory guidance clarify that "regulators may impose penalties, issue consent orders, or require further remediation where weaknesses persist." Incorrect:
* A: Secondary sanctions generally apply to sanctions violations, not standard AML program weaknesses.
* D: Regulatory actions can be public and do pose reputational risk.
* E: While transparency is sometimes required, this is not a universal regulatory response.
References:
CAMS 6th Edition, Regulatory Examinations and Remediation
FFIEC BSA/AML Manual, Enforcement Actions


NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Choose three.)

  • A. Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks
  • B. Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others
  • C. Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships
  • D. Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness
  • E. Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:
A risk-based approach involves conducting a comprehensive risk assessment, applying controls that match the identified risk levels, and creating detailed customer risk profiles to focus monitoring and resources where they are most needed to mitigate financial crime risks effectively.


NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following are limitations of using search engines to screen adverse media? (Select Three.)

  • A. Outcomes can be inconsistent due to varying search engine algorithms
  • B. The process is time-consuming and requires significant manual effort
  • C. Search engines provide unstructured data that complicates media analysis
  • D. Search results are often inefficient in identifying relevant adverse media
  • E. Search engines have limited global language coverage

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Adverse media screening is an important component of customer due diligence, but reliance on general search engines presents several limitations recognized by AML practitioners and regulators.
Search engines typically provide unstructured data, which makes it difficult to systematically analyze and document results for compliance purposes. Information may be incomplete, duplicated, or lack context.
The process is also time-consuming and highly manual, particularly for institutions screening large customer populations. Manual reviews increase operational burden and introduce inconsistency and human error.
Additionally, search engine algorithms vary, meaning results can differ depending on timing, location, and personalization, leading to inconsistent outcomes that are difficult to audit or reproduce.
While language coverage and relevance may be challenges, the most critical limitations relate to lack of structure, inefficiency, and inconsistent results.


NEW QUESTION # 37
A key advantage of privacy enhancing technologies (PETs) in anti-money laundering is that they offer:

  • A. transfer, decryption and storage of data by the data processor.
  • B. secure processing of data while it remains encrypted.
  • C. simultaneous encryption and decryption for underlying data.
  • D. full access to underlying data with full and uninterrupted calculations made on the data.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A key advantage of privacy enhancing technologies (PETs) in anti-money laundering is their ability to securely process data while it remains encrypted. This enables data analysis and collaboration without exposing sensitive information, helping to maintain privacy while still supporting financial crime detection.


NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following statements is true regarding tipping off?

  • A. Tipping off is not committed when detailed inquiries are made with a customer whose transactions have been flagged by a transaction monitoring system.
  • B. Tipping off is a criminal act whereby confidential information about a financial crime investigation is disclosed in an unauthorized manner to a third party who may be the subject of the investigation or able to prejudice it.
  • C. Tipping off is an obligation only applied to AFC professionals and bank staff because they are required to file a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).
  • D. When an unusual transaction is detected, an AFC professional can instruct the relationship manager to communicate with the customer to decide whether a SAR should be filed.

Answer: B

Explanation:
"Tipping off" is a serious offense under AML/CFT legislation in many jurisdictions and is consistently addressed in FATF standards. It occurs when confidential information relating to a suspicious transaction, SAR, or ongoing investigation is disclosed without authorization to a person who is the subject of the report or whose knowledge could compromise the investigation.
Such disclosures may alert criminals, allowing them to conceal evidence, move funds, or evade law enforcement. For this reason, tipping off is typically a criminal offense, not merely a breach of internal policy.
The prohibition applies broadly-not only to AFC professionals but to anyone with access to sensitive AML information. Making detailed or targeted inquiries with a customer after a transaction has been flagged can constitute tipping off if it reveals suspicion or investigative activity. Relationship managers must be carefully controlled and should not be instructed to probe customers in a way that signals suspicion.
Therefore, the correct statement is that tipping off is an unauthorized disclosure that can prejudice an investigation.


NEW QUESTION # 39
In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.
Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

  • A. Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries
  • B. Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected
  • C. Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn
  • D. Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Effective oversight of transaction monitoring includes:
* Periodic review of client profiles to ensure up-to-date information for high-risk clients (B):"Reviewing and updating customer profiles is essential to ensure that monitoring scenarios are based on current risk data."(CAMS 6th Edition, Transaction Monitoring and Customer Due Diligence)
* Periodic review of transaction monitoring scenarios and productivity to ensure appropriate AML typologies are reflected (D):"Firms should periodically review the parameters and output of transaction monitoring systems to ensure they continue to identify relevant ML/TF risks and typologies."(CAMS
6th Edition, Monitoring and Surveillance)
Incorrect Options:
* A: Cooperation with the legal team is important, but not a core strategy for monitoring governance.
* C: SARs filed with FinCEN should not be withdrawn unless new evidence requires it; review should focus on process, not withdrawal.
References:
CAMS 6th Edition, Transaction Monitoring
FFIEC BSA/AML Manual, Transaction Monitoring Section


NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is an important factor to consider when setting up an anti-financial crimes (AFC) compliance program governance structure?

  • A. Establishing clear roles and responsibilities for AFC risk escalations and issues
  • B. Ensuring the structure is reviewed by an outside auditor or consultant
  • C. Establishing a system of internal controls commensurate with the institution's size and complexity
  • D. Designating a qualified board of directors to monitor day-to-day compliance

Answer: A

Explanation:
One of the core components of a strong AFC (Anti-Financial Crimes) compliance program is establishingclear roles, responsibilities, and lines of accountability, especially forescalating and addressing AFC risks and compliance issues. This governance clarity ensures effective implementation, transparency in decision-making, and timely resolution of compliance concerns.
While external audits (option A) and internal controls (option B) are important,defining governance structure and escalation responsibilities (option D)is a foundational element. Additionally, the board of directors (option C) provides oversight-not day-to-day compliance monitoring.
Reference: ACAMS CAMS Study Guide - 6th Edition, Chapter: Compliance Program Structures - Section:
Governance and Oversight Functions


NEW QUESTION # 41
How should risk-related issues be addressed to ensure the effectiveness of the three lines of defense model?

  • A. Assign risk-related oversight duties to the third line to provide an independent review and address issues more effectively by avoiding conflicts of interest in the first and second lines
  • B. Ensure that the second line reviews, monitors, and escalates risk-related issues as needed to senior management while maintaining independent oversight from the third line
  • C. Delegate some risk-related issues to the first line to avoid overwhelming the second line and to ensure operational efficiency
  • D. Have senior management handle risk-related issues directly when possible because they are ultimately responsible for the organisation's overall risk management strategy

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 42
Money laundering has social and economic impacts, especially within developing countries. A high volume of money laundering in a country may: (Select Two.)

  • A. Reduce confidence in the country's financial sector.
  • B. Reduce volatility in exchange and interest rates.
  • C. Lower the employment rate.
  • D. Dissuade foreign investment.
  • E. Dissuade government tax incentive programs

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 43
Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues?
(Choose two.)

  • A. Tax Justice Network
  • B. Transparency International
  • C. Wolfsberg Group
  • D. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The Wolfsberg Group and Transparency International are non-governmental organizations that provide information and guidance on AML/CFT matters, helping institutions and policymakers strengthen financial crime prevention practices.


NEW QUESTION # 44
The compliance officer at a casino in Taiwan discovers that the casino received multiple cash deposits from a customer just below the Large-Amount Transaction Report (LTR) limit on consecutive days. The customer used three different betting accounts.
What is the appropriate next step?

  • A. Inform the customer their activity Is suspicious and request an explanation
  • B. Follow internal reporting procedures to escalate the activity as suspicious and report to appropriate authorities
  • C. Contact law enforcement to launch an Investigation into the customer's financial activities
  • D. Make a note in the customer's account that the customer's gambling activities are frequently conducted below the reporting limit

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 45
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