Free Cisco 400-007 Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps
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NEW QUESTION # 277
Refer to the exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an enterprise WAN that connects the headquarters with 22 branch offices. The number of remote sites is expected to triple in the next three years. The final solution must comply with these requirements:
Only the loopback address of each of the enterprise CE X and Y routers must be advertised to the interconnecting service provider cloud network.
The transport layer must carry the VPNv4 label and VPN payload over the MP-BGP control plane.
The transport layer must not be under service provider control.
Which enterprise WAN transport virtualization technique meets the requirements?
- A. point-to-point GRE per VRF
- B. DMVPN per VRF
- C. EIGRP Over the Top
- D. MPLS over BGP over multipoint GRE
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 278
A key to maintaining a highly available network is building in the appropriate redundancy to protect against failure. This redundancy is carefully balanced with the inherent complexity of redundant systems. Which design consideration is relevant for enterprise WAN use cases when it comes to resiliency?
- A. Design in a way that it simplifies and improves ease of deployment
- B. Design automation tools wherever it is appropriate for greater visibility
- C. Design in a way that expects outages and attacks on the network and its protected resources
- D. The design approach should consider simple and centralized management aspect
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 279
Company XYZ is designing the network for IPv6 security and they have these design requirements:
* A switch or router must deny access to traffic from sources with addresses that are correct, but are topologically incorrect
* Devices must block Neighbor Discovery Protocol resolution for destination addresses that are not found in the binding table.
Which two IPv4 security features are recommended for this company? (Choose two)
- A. IPv6 DHCP Guard
- B. IPv6 Prefix Guard
- C. IPv6 Destination Guard
- D. IPv6 Source Guard
- E. IPv6 RA Guard
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 280
What is the most important operational driver in building a resilient and secure modular network design?
- A. Reduce the frequency of failures requiring human intervention
- B. Increase time spent on developing new features
- C. Minimize app downtime
- D. Dependencies on hardware or software that is difficult to scale
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 281
Which two features are advantages of SD-WAN compared to MPLS-based connectivity? (Choose two.)
- A. manages failures through backup links
- B. uses FEC constructs for traffic forwarding, thereby improving efficiency
- C. separates infrastructure and policy
- D. unifies the WAN backbone
- E. uses policy-based forwarding of real-time traffic with less complexity
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION # 282
Company XYZ, a global content provider, owns data centers on different continents. Their data center design involves a standard three-layer design with a Layer 3-only core. VRRP is used as the FHRP. They require VLAN extension across access switches in all data centers and plan to purchase a Layer 2 interconnection between two of their data centers in Europe. In the absence of other business or technical constraints, which termination point is optimal for the Layer 2 interconnection?
- A. At the access layer because the STP root bridge does not need to align with the VRRP active node
- B. At the core layer because all external connections must terminate there for security reasons
- C. At the core layer, to offer the possibility to isolate STP domains
- D. At the aggregation layer because it is the Layer 2 to Layer 3 demarcation point
Answer: D
Explanation:
* D (Aggregation layer termination):The aggregation layer is the ideal demarcation for Layer 2 interconnects because it maintains clear boundaries between Layer 2 and Layer 3 domains, simplifies STP and routing design, and preserves hierarchical scalability.
Other options explained:
* A: Core should remain strictly Layer 3 for scalability and stability.
* B: Access-layer interconnection introduces STP complexity.
* C: Security concerns are handled via policy, not termination layer
NEW QUESTION # 283
SDN is still maturing Throughout the evolution of SDN which two things will play a key role in enabling a successful deployment and avoiding performance visibility gaps in the infrastructure? (Choose two.)
- A. dynamic real-time change
- B. peer-to-peer controller infrastructure
- C. falling back to old behaviors
- D. rapid on-demand growth
- E. integration of device context
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION # 284
Company XYZ is a large US-based online retailer that is preparing for a major sale scheduled for the holiday season. Large volumes of dynamic workloads are expected, which are time sensitive and seasonal. In anticipation of the surge in data, they are re-architecting their workload management.
Which two technical considerations for service placement of workloads should be considered?
(Choose two.)
- A. workload elasticity
- B. performance
- C. service level agreement
- D. time to market
- E. business asset control
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Performance must be considered to ensure workloads handle the seasonal surge in demand without degradation.
Workload elasticity is critical for scaling resources dynamically up or down based on peak demand during the holiday season.
NEW QUESTION # 285
How many fully established neighbour relationships exist on an Ethernet with five routers running OSPF as network type broadcast?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 286
Your network operations team is deploying Access Control Lists (ACLs) across your Internet gateways. They wish to place an ACL inbound on the Internet gateway interface facing the core network (the "trusted" interface). Which IP address would the ACL need for traffic sourced from the inside interface, to match the source address of the traffic?
- A. outside global
- B. inside global
- C. outside local
- D. inside local
Answer: B
Explanation:
When an ACL is applied inbound on the Internet gateway interface facing the internal (trusted) network, the source IP address seen in the ACL will be the address after NAT translation has been applied to outbound traffic. This is called the inside global address:
* Inside global = Public IP assigned by NAT to inside traffic for external use.
* Inside local = Internal IP address prior to NAT.
Why other options are incorrect:
* B, D: Outside addresses refer to external devices, not internal traffic.
* C: Inside local is seen before NAT, not after.
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NEW QUESTION # 287
Which mechanism provides Layer 2 fault isolation between data centers?
- A. TRILL
- B. LISP
- C. fabric path
- D. advanced VPLS
- E. OTV
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 288
Refer to the table. A customer investigates connectivity options for a DCI between two production data centers. The solution must provide dual 10G connections between locations with no single points of failure for Day 1 operations. It must also include an option to scale for up to 20 resilient connections in the second year to accommodate isolated SAN over IP and isolated dedicated replication IP circuits. All connectivity methods are duplex 10 Gbps. Which transport technology costs the least over two years in this scenario?
- A. CWDM
- B. Metro Ethernet
- C. DWDM
- D. MPLS
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 289
Drag and drop the design use cases from the left onto the correct uRPF techniques used to prevent spoofing attacks Not all options are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 290
Which two mechanisms avoid suboptimal routing in a network with dynamic mutual redistribution between multiple OSPFv2 and EIGRP boundaries? (Choose two.)
- A. Matching EIGRP process ID
- B. AD manipulation
- C. Route filtering
- D. Matching OSPF external routes
- E. Route tagging
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Mutual redistribution between different routing protocols can cause routing loops and suboptimal routing due to:
* Route feedback loops (routes being re-imported back into the originating protocol).
* Inconsistent administrative distances (AD) leading to selection of suboptimal paths.
Two key mechanisms avoid these issues:
* A. Administrative Distance (AD) manipulation: Ensures that one protocol is consistently preferred over the other when duplicate routes exist.
* C. Route tagging: Assigns tags to redistributed routes to identify the source of the route and prevent re- importation (looping) into the originating protocol.
These methods align with CCDE v3.1 principles for multi-protocol control plane design and stability.
Why other options are incorrect:
* B & F: Matching routes or process IDs do not directly prevent loops or suboptimal routing.
* D is a duplicate of C.
* E: Filtering helps but is reactive, not a comprehensive prevention mechanism.
-
NEW QUESTION # 291
Which best practice ensures data security in the private cloud?
- A. Use the same vendor for consistent encryption.
- B. Use IPsec for communication between unsecured network connection
- C. Anonymize data ownership to comply with privacy rules.
- D. Encrypt data at rest and in transition.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 292
The line between security and compliance is easily blurred and is, to a large extent, a moving target Drag and drop each of the requirements on the left to the appropriate section on the right
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 293
What are two parameters that can be leveraged by SAML in mixed private/public cloud environments by using identity and asset management? (Choose two.)
- A. identity federations
- B. multifactor hard tokens
- C. policy-based tokens
- D. unified directories
- E. link federations
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
In mixed private/public cloud environments, SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) can leverage various parameters to enhance identity and asset management. Among the options provided, the two most pertinent parameters are:
Identity federation is a core concept in SAML, enabling users to access multiple systems across different organizations or domains using a single set of credentials. This is achieved through the establishment of trust relationships between identity providers (IdPs) and service providers (SPs), facilitating seamless single sign-on (SSO) experiences. In hybrid cloud environments, identity federation allows for centralized authentication, reducing the need for multiple credentials and enhancing security.
SAML utilizes tokens, known as assertions, which contain authentication and authorization information about users. These tokens can be policy-based, meaning they are issued and validated according to specific security policies and access controls defined by the organization.
Policy-based tokens ensure that access to resources is granted based on predefined rules, enhancing security and compliance in cloud environments.
By leveraging identity federations and policy-based tokens, organizations can effectively manage identities and assets across mixed cloud environments, ensuring secure and efficient access to resources.
NEW QUESTION # 294
The security department at a bank is evaluating its data governance policy. A security officer requests that processes be developed to define who within the bank has authority and control over data assets and how the data assets can be used. The security officer also states that the policy must encompass the users, processes and technologies needed to manage and protect the data assets.
What are two goals of the new data governance policy? (Choose two.)
- A. Establish internal rules for data use.
- B. Increase the value of the data.
- C. Decrease the size of the data.
- D. Support network segmentation.
- E. Enforce data encryption at rest and in transit.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Data governance establishes internal rules for data use by defining ownership, authority, and control.
By ensuring proper management and protection, data governance increases the value of the data as a trusted business asset.
NEW QUESTION # 295
Drag and drop the optical technology design characteristics on the left to the correct optical technologies on the right. Not all options are used
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 296
Which main IoT migration aspect should be reviewed for a manufacturing plant?
- A. Wi-Fi Infrastructure
- B. Applications
- C. Sensors
- D. Security
- E. Ethernet Switches
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 297
Organic growth or decline comes from a company's normal business activities, rather than through acquisitions or divestment. Changes in usage patterns can also cause organic change in network requirements Which tool is useful when designing and operationalizing a network that is in the process of change?
- A. change management
- B. modularity
- C. mobility
- D. monitoring
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 298
You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus.
Which two principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity?
(Choose two.)
- A. Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle.
- B. Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual-band clients are used.
- C. Enable 802.11n channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell throughput.
- D. increases the number of SSlDs to load-balance the client traffic.
- E. Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 299
As more links are added to the network, information and attributes related to the link is added to the control plane meaning every link that gets added will slow down the convergence of the control plane by some measurable amount of time. As a result when additional redundancy is built or added the MTTR will increase too Which risk increases along with the increased MTTR?
- A. slower data plane convergence
- B. overlapping outages
- C. management visibility
- D. topology change detection
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 300
When designing a WAN that will be carrying real-time traffic, what are two important reasons to consider serialization delay? (Choose two.)
- A. Serialization delays are invariable because they depend only on the line rate of the interface.
- B. Serialization delays are variable because they depend on the line rate of the interface and on the type of the packet being serialized.
- C. Serialization delays are variable because they depend only on the size of the packet being serialized.
- D. Serialization delay is the time required to transmit the packet on the physical media.
- E. Serialization delay depends not only on the line rate of the interface but also on the size of the packet.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
* C: Serialization delay is the time it takes to place a packet onto the physical medium.
* E: It is calculated as (packet size / link speed), thus depending on both the packet size and the interface speed.
Why other options are incorrect:
* A: It depends on both size and line rate, not just line rate.
* B: Packet type has no effect on serialization delay.
* D: It's not only packet size, but also link speed that affects it.
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NEW QUESTION # 301
When a detection system for protecting a network from threats sourced from the Internet is designed there are two common deployment methods, where the system is placed differently relative to the perimeter firewall
* An unfiltered detection system examines the raw Internet data streams before it reaches the firewall
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 302
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Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE v3.0) Written Certification Exam, also known as the Cisco 400-007 exam, is a challenging certification test designed to assess the skills and knowledge of experienced network designers. 400-007 exam is aimed at professionals who have a deep understanding of network design principles and can create complex network architectures to meet the requirements of large organizations. Passing the CCDE written exam is a significant achievement and demonstrates a high level of expertise in network design.
Cisco 400-007 exam is a challenging and rigorous certification exam that requires a significant investment of time and effort. Candidates must prepare thoroughly by studying the exam objectives, reviewing industry best practices, and gaining hands-on experience in network design. Preparing for the exam may involve taking courses, attending workshops, and participating in online forums and study groups.
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